George Reisman: Are Objectivist Economists Consistent with Rand?

It is my contention that classical economics is not completely consistent with Ayn Rand’s Objectivist philosophy and even economists who are Objectivists have failed to provide an economic theory that is consistent with her ideas.  For instance, George Reisman is one of the well known economists associated with Objectivism and Professor Emeritus of Economics at Pepperdine University.  In his book Capitalism on page 40 he states:

Patents … derive their market value from the fact that they make it possible for the intellectual creators of new and additional wealth to benefit from their contributions by temporarily limiting the increase in wealth that their intellectual contributions bring about.

Now how does Dr. Reisman square his ideas with Rand on this subject?  Dr. Reisman later states that patents increase the supply of goods, so he appears to be somewhat inconsistent.  But on page 449 he states:

Intangible assets (patents) no more constitute capital than they constitute wealth.

Dr. Reisman does define wealth in Chapter 2 as material goods made by man.  So it is consistent with his definition, but how does he square this with Rand who states in Galt’s speech:

He cannot obtain his food without knowledge of food and of the way to obtain it. He cannot dig a ditch––or build a cyclotron––without a knowledge of his aim and the means to achieve it. To remain alive, he must think.”  Rand 1992, p. 1012.

An example might be useful.  Joe is a builder and knows how to make concrete but is not presently making concrete.  Is he wealthier than Jim who is a builder, in essentially the same position as Joe, but Jim does not know how to make (or get) concrete?  Clearly Joe is wealthier.  I think Reisman’s definition of wealth is flawed.

I also think it is inconsistent with Ayn Rand, who in Capitalism the Unknown Ideal, states:

Patents and copyrights are the legal implementation of the base of all property rights: a man’s right to the product of his mind.[1]

Is the value of a building worth more in a country with property rights or one without property rights?  In the property rights country, the owner can collateralize his property, he can obtain income from his property without having to hire thugs to enforce his rights, he can justify investing in improvements in this building.  In both cases there is the same material good, but the value is totally different.  Property rights are wealth, their contribution to wealth is secondary to the underlying asset, i.e., the building or the invention.

My main problem with classical economics or Austrian economics is they have not built a system around the fact that man’s main tool of survival is his mind.  That is the source of his wealth and the only source of real per capita increases in income/wealth.

[1] Rand, Ayn, Capitalism: The Unknown Ideal, Signet, New York, 1967, p. 130.